Mark 15.33-36, Matthew 27.45-49.
Before he died, Jesus shouted out something in a language his bystanders didn’t recognize. And a lot of present-day commentators don’t recognize it either. We know it was
The reason for the confusion is that Mark and Matthew don’t match. Both of ’em recorded Jesus’s words as best they could—but they did so in the Greek alphabet, which doesn’t correspond neatly to Hebrew and Aramaic sounds. So here’s what we got. (And if your web browser reads Unicode, you might actually see the original-language characters.)
VERSE | ORIGINAL | TRANSLITERATION |
---|---|---|
Ps 22.1, Hebrew |
| Elí Elí, lamá azavettáni? |
Ps 22.1, Aramaic (Syriac) | Elahí Elahí, lamaná šavaqtaní? | |
Mk 15.34, Greek | Elo’í Elo’í, lemá savahthaní? (or σαβακτανεί/savaktaneí in the Codex Sinaiticus.) | |
Mt 27.46, Greek | Ilí ilí, lemá savahthaní? |
Just based on how the gospels’ authors wrote the word for “my God,”
But it seems to me the most likely Jesus would quote bible in Hebrew. For three reasons:
- That is the language King David wrote his psalm in.
- It’d explain why the people who heard Jesus quote it, didn’t understand him. Judeans and Galileans spoke Aramaic; that’s what the New Testament meant by
Ἑβραϊστί /Evrahistí andἙβραΐδι /Evra’ídi, “Hebraic.”Jn 5.2, Ac 22.2, 26.14, Rv 9.11 In the first century Hebrew was a dead language, only spoken by scribes like Jesus. - It’s way easier to confuse Elí with
Ἡλίας /Ilías, the Greek version ofאֵלִיָּה /Eliyyáhu, “Elijah,” than it is Elahí.
Regardless, in my translation the words in Jesus’s mouth are Aramaic in Mark, and Hebrew in Matthew. ’Cause that’s what the authors were apparently going for.
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Awright, now that we have the language sorta squared away, let’s get to what was going on here.